Online Prac CAT # 03 - Test

e- Prac-CAT # 03
(Part of the 264 Tests provided by PT)

INSTRUCTIONS
D O

1. Keep only the ID Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place indicated by the invigilator. N

2. This test contains three sections which examine various abilities. There are 25 questions in Section I, 25 questions in Section II, 25 questions in Section III and 25 questions in Section IV. You will be given two and half hours to O complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind P that you need to demonstrate your competence in all the three sections. E
N F R O M T H I S S I D E

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O P E N A L O N G T H I S E D G E

3. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions. There is only one correct answer to each question. 4. All questions carry four marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one mark. 5. Do your rough work only on the test booklet and NOT on the answer sheet. 6. Revising and analysing your performance after the test is over is critical to your improved performance in the next test(s). A positive attitude to revise, analyse and learn from mistakes will be a great plus.
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Section I Directions For Q.1 to Q.5: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. PASSAGE A sequel to Kororinpa: Marble Mania, one of the most overlooked games in the Wii catalogue, Marble Saga succeeds in matching that game's exacting tilt-control gameplay while exceeding it in nearly every respect. This is the game Super Money Ball should have become. Aside from a few slight camera issues, the controls are remarkably precise, allowing you to accurately maneuver your marble through the game's harrowing courses. While many of the new features, like being able to "fuse" parts for the new level creator and the attached story, feel like little more than bullet points for the press release, the core game adds some brilliant new wrinkles to an already great formula. Your ball can now shrink and grow, allowing you to access different parts of the levels, which are better designed than the last game. But mostly, it's the same addictive gameplay that made me a fan of the original. Like its predecessor, Marble Saga Kororinpa is disarming in its simplicity; players must safely navigate a marble through a maze, collecting gems and items along the way. The formula earned Kororinpa: Marble Mania mild critical praise and Hudson Soft has added a slew of fresh content to the sequel. The most blatant new feature is the unsuccessful inclusion of a narrative in a game that doesn't warrant one. Instead of being driven by simple fun, you are now motivated to move through the puzzles by an ant named Anthony, whose colony is in peril and can only be saved by securing the mythical Golden Sunflower. While Anthony and his plight are endearing, interaction with him is severely limited. The story merely ends an otherwise self-contained game. Beyond the fledgling story, Marble Saga: Kororinpa succeeds where its predecessor fell flat. Saga includes more than 150 levels in seven unique areas. Taking advantage of all of the Wii's capabilities, 30 of these levels are specifically designed for the Wii Balance Board, which trades precision for novelty. Online leaderboards allow you to compare your high scores to others worldwide, and a new level editor lets you design your own unique stages and share them with friends. Even Miis are integrated in a small way. The intelligently designed stages offer a well-balanced challenge even without bumping the difficulty to hard. The intuitive controls react well, tainted only with the occasional perspective issues that turn some tricky corners into exercises of luck rather than skill. At times this issue is further aggravated by an inconsistent checkpoint system - they are entirely absent from some levels and over-abundant in others. Still, Marble Saga: Kororinpa's simple concept and complex execution make marbles fun again - no plastic toys needed. 1. Why does the author call the narrative's inclusion as a blatant new feature? (Q. code - 102203001) (1) Because the storyline is an inducement for the game when there is no real need for it. (2) Because he thinks that it could have been done away with without harming the game's flow at all. (3) Because it appears to him as conspicuously redundant and even a failed attempt. (4) It takes the focus and fun away from the gameplay. (5) It is in least contact with the gameplay and is not even improving the overall effect.
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2. "The game's harrowing courses" would imply (Q. code - 102203002) (1) troublesome lanes (2) intertwining laps (3) agonizing roads (4) traumatic paths (5) torturous levels 3. If the author was asked to take his pick between Marble Mania and Marble Saga, he would (Q. code - 102203003) (1) definitely choose Marble Saga. (2) definitely choose Marble Mania. (3) choose Marble Saga if the narrative was removed. (4) choose Marble Saga only if the narrative was removed. (5) choose Marble Mania if the controls were improved. 4. "Disarming" as used in the passage implies (Q. code - 102203004) (1) Winning over (2) Beatific (3) Soothing (4) Allaying (5) Unchallenging 5. What does the author mean when he says, "While many of the new features, like being able to "fuse" parts for the new level creator and the attached story, feel like little more than bullet points for the press release, the core game adds some brilliant new wrinkles to an already great formula." (Q. code - 102203005) (1) The previous version was great; the newer one has few good characteristics and more unnecessary ones. (2) The newer version is a better one with some good characteristics, albeit a few downfalls. (3) The game has a great concept and some excellent new features, although a few of these could have been done away with. (4) The game's new attributes have generated a mixed response from the reviewers. (5) The already appreciated style of the game has been improved in the newer version with some good additions.

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Directions for Q.6 to Q.10: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Cognitive relativism affirms that all truth is relative. This would mean that no system of determining truth is more valid than another system, and that there is no objective standard of truth to be found or claimed. It would, naturally, deny that there would be a God of absolute truth. It would also deny the belief that rational thought can discover and verify truth. Cognitive relativism consists of two claims: (1) The truth-value of any statement is always relative to some particular standpoint; (2) No standpoint is metaphysically privileged over all others. But, cognitive relativism does not deny that there are differences in perspective in different cultures. In fact, it affirms them. The issue with cognitive relativism is that there is no epistemological system that is inherently superior over another. Of course, this seems to be self-refuting since it claims that its own principal of relative truth is absolutely true and uses it to determine that cognitive relativism is true. Several factors contributing to its acceptance are: First, the success of science has increasingly promoted the idea that true answers are found within science. Many people believe that whatever "scientists" tell them is factual. When science cannot answer something, it simply states that the truth will become known later. Second, with the broad acceptance of the evolutionary theory, God is pushed more and more out of the picture and we are left to learn by first-hand experiences. Third, we are encountering more and more diverse cultures in the world. This tends to make us more comfortable with the idea that there is more than one way to do something, more than one way for a culture to operate, more than one way for something to be true or right. Fourth, increasingly, the content of film, academia, and literature is moving away from the notion of the absolute and towards relativism. Fifth, there is an increase in relativistic philosophies, particularly those found in the New Age movement which teaches that there is no absolute truth and that each person can create his own reality. Sixth, past philosophers such as Wittgenstein, Khuh, Kant, Marx, and Neitsche, have influenced the thinking of many with their relativistic principles and attacks on absolute truths.

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Realists hold that our judgments are true when they accurately describe or correspond to a reality that exists independently of our perceptions, conceptions, theories or desires. On this view, a true statement such as "water contains oxygen" describes a fact about this independent reality. It rests on a scientific model that may be said to "carve nature at the joints". But an obvious question arises: how can we determine that our judgments are true in this sense? The obvious answer is that we test them by making experiments and observations. When our assertions are decisively confuted by experience, we conclude that they are false. The objections leveled against cognitive relativism are usually of two kinds. One line of attack tries to show that relativism is incoherent because it is self-refuting. The other common objection is that relativism, if taken seriously, would have bad practical consequences. Furthermore, cognitive relativism is easily refutable with the following example of a logical absolute: Something cannot bring itself into existence. The proposed logical absolute is indeed logical and always true. For something to bring itself into existence it must first exist. If it first existed, then it cannot bring itself into existence because it already is existing. Likewise, if something does not exist then it is not possible for it to bring itself into existence, since it isn't there to do anything. Cognitive relativism is thought to undermine our commitment to improving our ways of thinking rather as moral relativism is thought to undermine our belief in the possibility of moral progress. Several reasons have been given to support this anxiety. To some, the fact that relativism countenances the possibility of multiple true but incompatible points of view entails a kind of epistemic nihilism. Critics of relativism sometimes seem to assume that relativists are denying that they believe-or denying themselves the right to believe-obvious truths. But the more sophisticated relativists do not deny that statements like "the earth is round" are true. They just favour a certain philosophical account of what is involved and implied when we describe such statements as "true". On the other hand, relativism is sometimes advanced quite crudely. Then, instead of being a philosophical view about the status of our beliefs and the limitations on how we might support these beliefs, it becomes an excuse for accepting uncritically one's own culture's assumptions and epistemic norms; or it serves to rationalize intellectual apathy or slackness masquerading as tolerance of diverse opinions.

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6. Which of the following does not define cognitive relativism? (Q. code - 102203006) (1) Reason is accepting the complexities of culture and morphing them into one. (2) The choice between competing theories is arbitrary, since there is no such thing as an objective truth. (3) No system of determining truth is more valid than another system, and there is no objective standard of truth to be found or claimed. (4) There is no substantive overarching framework in which radically different and alternative schemes are commensurable. (5) None of these 7. Which of the following supports the assertion that relativism is self refuting? (Q. code - 102203007) (1) Relativism asserts that the truth-value of a statement is always relative to some particular standpoint which implies that the same statement can be both true and false. (2) For something to bring itself into existence it must first exist and if it first existed, then it cannot bring itself into existence because it already is existing. (3) It claims that there is no particular theory that is above other theories and states that there is no absolute truth but still justifies itself as absolutely true. (4) Both (1) and (2) (5) (1), (2) and (3) 8. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage? (Q. code - 102203008) (1) Without God as a determiner of what is true and what is not, we are left to do and believe "what is right in our own eyes." (2) Encountering more and more diverse cultures contributes to a denial of absolutes. (3) Media help shape our culture and beliefs. (4) Some critics assert that relativism's refusal to accept absolute truths in fact allows for their fashioning as new truths. (5) The branding of a hypothesis as true or false depends on our judgement of the experience related to it. 9. Which of the following can be said about the perspective of the relativists? (Q. code - 102203009) (1) Relativists deny that they believe-or deny themselves the right to believe-obvious truths. (2) They favour a certain philosophical account of what is involved and implied when we describe certain statements as "true". (3) They undermine our commitment to improving our ways of thinking rather as moral relativism is thought to undermine our belief in the possibility of moral progress. (4) Our judgments are true when they accurately describe or correspond to a reality that exists independently of our perceptions, conceptions, theories or desires. (5) None of these.

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10. What is the essence of the last paragraph? (Q. code - 102203010) (1) When one is afflicted with lack of intellectual capacity, one masks it with fake relativism to be able to accept the culturally prevalent norms. (2) Sometimes relativism is misrepresented by people who lack the intellectual capacity to question themselves and thus relativism is thought to be furthering parochial interests. (3) Relativism is not represented by miscreants who change it by their own incompetencies and make it suit their petty interests. (4) The falsification that changes the relativism school of thought happens to spread through ignorance. (5) The degradation of relativism occurs at the hands of the intellectually poor who feign understanding to further tolerance of different opinions. Directions for Questions 11 to 15: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. When disaster strikes, it's only human to attribute blame. In the middle of the last millennium, the pope blamed witches for the "little Ice Age" that was giving Europe a chilly embrace. Five centuries later, the world's climate is changing again. Witches are still blamed in Tanzania and individuals are persecuted. In the developed world, we no longer believe in witches. But hyperbole and blame remain an integral part of Climate debate. Climate change campaigner George Monbiot says global warming's effects will be as devastating as a nuclear war. Celebrity activist Al Gore believes global warming is a "planetary emergency." He gives humanity just one decade to "avert a major catastrophe that could send our entire planet into a tailspin of epic destruction involving extreme weather, floods, droughts, epidemics and killer heat waves." The claims from activists come so quickly that it's a challenge to look carefully at each of them. Campaigners like Gore and Monbiot are responsible for a staggering tsunami of exaggerated claims. Like the Southeast Asian tsunami -- which caused the same number of deaths as two months of easily curable infectious diseases in the continent -- it has caused the world to divert attention from other major problems. Other planetary emergencies include malaria, HIV/AIDS, starvation, dysentery, corruption and conflict. Malaria researchers don't make lurid, baseless predictions that the disease will wipe out the entire world. Yet we wholeheartedly accept arrant nonsense to be spread in the name of combating climate change. British scientist James Lovelock claims, "Before this century is over billions of us will die and the few breeding pairs of people that survive will be in the Arctic where the climate remains tolerable." Mainstream climatologists entirely disagree. The consensus among climate experts is that average temperatures will rise over the next century by about 2.6 degrees C. There will be more fatalities caused by the heat. We hear
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about that every time there's a heat wave in Europe. But there will be a lot fewer deaths in winter -- a side of the story that we seldom hear mentioned. Sea levels will rise. But the rise of about a foot will be no more than the oceans rose in the past 150 years. It's a problem, but not a catastrophe. A British think-tank analyzed the debate on climate change and found that the media, government and environmental groups depict global warming as "awesome, terrible, immense and beyond human control," using "inflated or extreme" language, including a "quasi-religious register of death and doom." The fear of Armageddon stifles sensible dialogue. Those who dare question the alarmist rhetoric are labeled "climate change deniers." Proponents of such drastic cuts seldom mention their cost. Read Al Gore's entire book and watch his whole movie: You won't find a single mention of the cost of seriously addressing global warming. The best estimate is that the Kyoto Protocol will stop about 4,000 heat-caused deaths in developing nations by the middle of this century. This will come at the humongous cost of $180 billion a year. Without the Kyoto Protocol, there would be many, many fewer coldrelated deaths. Each dollar we spend on a project has flow-on effects. Some social ills, like HIV/AIDS and malnutrition, have insidious and expensive effects on society. When people spend $5 to offset a ton of CO2 in a bid toward off climate change, they benefit the world to the tune of around $2. But the same $5 spent on HIV/Aids prevention could have caused $200 worth of social good -- or $150 from a malaria elimination program. We shouldn't ignore climate change. It makes sense to invest in research to make zerocarbon energy cheaper in the future: A 10-fold increase in our spending would be much more efficient than Kyoto, and still cost almost 10 times less. It makes sense to ground ourselves with a sensible dialogue on how to best help the planet. It doesn't make sense to succumb to the tidal wave of nonsense that comes with climate change today. One online editor has compiled a list of more than 300 problems that the popular press has attributed to global warming, from allergies to maple syrup shortages to yellow fever. Who says we no longer believe in witches?

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11. By stating that 'It's a problem, but not a catastrophe', what does the author want to convey? (Q. code - 102203011) (1) The problem of global warming is closer to a myth than to a reality. (2) This is not the supreme problem and other issues like HIV/AIDS and malnutrition are equally important reasons of concern. (3) The problem is still elementary but in future might be a major catastrophe that could send our entire planet into a tailspin of epic destruction. (4) Though the problem of global warming is real, it has been blown out of proportion by media and celebrity activists like Al Gore. (5) Although the problem is real, yet it also has counter-balancing effects which allow for inhibiting the the problem from growing to its full size. 12. What does the author mean when he says, "Who says we no longer believe in witches?" (Q. code - 102203012) (1) Witches are still blamed in Tanzania and individuals are persecuted. (2) Author uses the term for proponents of global warming theory who are corroding people's minds with exaggerated versions of catastrophic nature of global warming (3) People blindly believe evidences stated regarding effects of global warming without trying to search for truth themselves. (4) Author is trying to say that along with global warming several other serious problems like superstitions also exist. (5) The common populace is ignorant and believes the hyperbole that is thrown at them through the popular agenda of the media. 13. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the paragraph? (Q. code - 102203013) (1) Exaggerated claims about global warming issue have caused the diverted the world’s attention from other major problems. (2) Each problem associated with global warming has a counter-problem, thus the two balance each other. (3) Money invested in other issues would benefit more that that in Kyoto Protocol. (4) Media, government and environmental activists affect people's perceptions by using exaggerated claims and by dramatizing the issue of global warming. (5) None of these 14. What according to the author should be done in the current state of affairs? (Q. code - 102203014) (1) People should open up their minds and try to find out the real magnitude of problems. (2) Environmentalists and media should be more responsible and should not overrate the issue of global warming. (3) Since issues like HIV/AIDS and malnutrition affect more people, emphasis should be on using funds to tackle these. (4) We should set our priorities straight and invest wisely in order to make sure that due attention is given to each problem and resources are utilized in the best possible way. (5) It would make sense to invest in research to make zero-carbon energy cheaper in the future .
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15. What does the word "arrant" as used in the passage mean? (Q. code - 102203015) (1) Error prone (2) Unqualified (3) Misinformed (4) Hyperbole (5) Mainstream Directions for Questions 16 to 20: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Last summer at a raucous farmers' market in Jakarta, I was thrilled to discover the most expensive eggs I had ever seen-six dollars a dozen. I was thrilled because farmers I know in Sumatra, often struggle to convince new customers to pay four or five dollars a dozen, even though that price barely covers their costs. Chickens and eggs raised on small, sustainable farms seem relatively expensive because their production requires what economists call market inefficiencies: fair wages and working conditions for farm workers; humane standards for the animals, including reliance on more flavorful heritage breeds that can thrive outside cages; locally grown grain to supplement their forage that is less dependent on fossil fuels and grown without chemical fertilizers and pesticides; and the labor-intensive gathering of eggs by hand. But these "inefficiencies," which reflect the real cost of rational food production, are at the heart of a farming system that should work for us instead of against us. Price aside, most skeptical buyers are converts from the first egg sandwich. Demand for eggs from chickens raised the old-fashioned way-outdoors on pasture-is at an all-time high as we start to recognize that supporting local food production is the most practical solution for many of the problems inherent in agriculture today. There is also more than one way to calculate value: You can argue, for instance, that real farm eggs are actually cheaper than their factory cousins if considered from a nutritional standpoint: To get the amount of betacarotene present in one pastured egg, for instance, you would have to eat seven from a factory farm, according to the 2007 Mither Earth News egg testing project.(For every one egg you eat from a pastured hen, you would also have to eat three factory eggs to get the same amount of vitamin E and five for as much vitamin D. All the while, each additional conventional egg you eat will be giving you one third more cholesterol). But eggs from the farmers at my local market, in Carrboro, usually sell out by eight o'clock in the morning for a simpler reason: They taste like nothing else-rich, herbal, and earthy, all at once. A couple of real farm eggs have the power to become a satisfying instant meal with the addition of a few other ingredients or just a pat of butter and a thin slice of crisp toast. And as we hand over our four, five, or six dollars for a dozen eggs to the person who raised them, we don't just help support and feed the farmers and their hens, but also their land and the place we live. Now that's a bargain. 16. The author would disagree with which of the following? (Q. code - 102203016) (1) Farm eggs sell cheaper than their factory counterparts. (2) The nutrition content of the eggs depends upon their type (farm or factory). (3) Selling eggs and making profits is a difficult proposition. (4) The market inefficiencies involved in egg production at the farm level are actually efficiencies of a better system. (5) Factory eggs provide more cholesterol than the farm eggs.
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17. What is meant by the line " most skeptical buyers are converts from the first egg sandwich"? (Q. code - 102203017) (1) The first time one eats an egg sandwich, she/he experiences an ethereal taste that converts them from veg to non-vegetarianism. (2) The first egg sandwich converts most consumers from a state of naivete acceptance to skepticism. (3) The experience that accompanies an egg sandwich is so startlingly new for a person that it transforms a lot in him. (4) Most often, people remember the taste that accompanies their first egg sandwich and critically examine the egg they buy for simulating the taste. (5) The skepticism that ensues after savouring an egg sandwich is troubling and people tend to avoid both. 18. Which of the following is true for the first paragraph? (Q. code - 102203018) (1) It creates an understanding in the reader about the value of eggs. (2) It is a mocking display of how harsh market conditions stifle good practices. (3) The paragraph builds a premise for how the consumer's mood is shifting towards farm eggs. (4) It tries to make the readers aware of the plight of the egg producers. (5) The paragraph details the pricing mechanism of the eggs. 19. Why was the author thrilled to see eggs being sold at $6? (Q. code - 102203019) (1) Because at other places it was hard even to sell them for $4 or $5 which was a new and startling discovery for him. (2) Because $6 would cover most of the production cost for the eggs and this was the ideal pricing mechanism. (3) He felt that it was a remarkable feat to be able to sell at that price when most other markets couldn't even sell them for less. (4) Because these were the most expensive eggs he had ever seen. (5) He was overwhelmed by the price determination in that market. 20. All of these are practices classified as "market inefficiencies" except (Q. code - 102203020) (1) Sturdy hens (2) Manual gathering of eggs (3) Good working environment (4) Treating animals like humans (5) Reliance on indigenous grain

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Directions for Questions 21 to 25: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. There is a saying among wine aficionados that on the journey to wine understanding, all roads eventually lead to Burgundy. I am not sure I agree with that as my heart seems to be in Italy, but there is no denying the impact that Burgundy has had on the wine world and that some of the most ethereal wine experiences one can have come from Burgundy wines. The region of Burgundy is in the central part of eastern France and winds from the town of Auxerre at the northern end to the city of Lyon in the south. The region is usually broken down into sub-regions. The region of Chablis is the northernmost of these. This is home to some of the crispest Chardonnay wines in the world. Further south is the Côte d'Or which means "golden slope". It is a thin strip of vineyards along a series of sloping hillsides running more or less north-south. Most of the great vineyards in Burgundy are here. The Côte d'Or is divided into two parts. The northern half is called the Cotes de Nuits which starts just south of the city of Dijon and runs a few kilometers past the village of Nuits-Saint-Georges. The best red wines are made in the Cotes de Nuits, in fact, 90% of the grapes grown here are Pinot Noir. Twenty-four of the twenty-five red Grand Cru sites are located here. The southern half of the Cotes d'Or is called the Cotes du Beaune. This is home to the best white wines (with the exception of Chablis). Continuing south is the Cotes du Chalonaise which produces some very good wines and some of the best bargains in Burgundy. Even further south is the Maconnais which is known for easy to drink wines and good prices. At the very southern end of Burgundy is Beaujolais. Beaujolais is technically part of Burgundy but the wines are different and in fact are based on the Gamay grape. Burgundy has one of the most documented histories of any wine producing region in the world. Early evidence suggests the Celts were growing grapes in the first century B.C, but what sets Burgundy apart from many areas is that the early Roman Catholic Church and the monks in particular took an aggressive role in planting and maintaining vineyards. As early as 910, the Benedictines owned large holdings of vineyards. Two hundred years later, the Cistercians were dedicating their monasteries to creating and understanding wine and winemaking. In 1336, Cistercians created a walled vineyard (called a Clos) named Clos de Vougeot that is still producing great wines today. It was the Cistercian's patience and ethic of paying close attention to detail which first documented that different vineyards, even different parts of the same vineyards, seemed to consistently provide the best grapes and make the best wines. That discovery was to have profound effects in Burgundy and around the world. During the 14th and 15th centuries, the area was ruled by the Dukes of Burgundy. In 1395, Duke Philip the Bold issued a decree that the only red grape allowed to be planted was Pinot Noir. The use of the Gamay grape was declared unfit for human consumption. In addition, he forbade the use of manure as a fertilizer as it lessened the quality of the grape. This was most likely due to increased yields which diluted the quality of the wine made. Interestingly, at that time white wines were most likely made from a precursor of Pinot Gris called Fromenteau instead of the Chardonnay that is used today.
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Burgundy is often referred to as a minefield. There are so many expensive bottlings and many of them leave the consumer feeling unrewarded. Part of the problem is that when Burgundy is good, it can be ethereal. It can provide those wine drinking experiences that few places on earth can. Yet, once someone has had this familiarity, the chase and hunt to recreate it can be frustrating and expensive. For any true wine lover, however, it is a hunt worth taking. 21. What is the motif of the writer behind writing this passage? (Q. code - 102203021) (1) To identify the types of wine growing in the state of Burgundy. (2) To isolate the history of Burgundy region to study its role in the development of winemaking. (3) To understand the importance of French wine and in particular Burgundy wine. (4) To chalk out the different styles of winemaking that were prevalent in the past. (5) To create a mapping of the development of winemaking throughout the ages. 22. What effect could the discovery of the Cistercians have made upon the history of winemaking? (Q. code - 102203022) (1) A long stretch of field could have been used to provide similar types of grapes. (2) Grapes from a long expanse of land could be used for creating one type of wine. (3) All the fields in one unit of land could have been used to provide similar grapes. (4) The homogeneity of grapes could have led to the differentiation of the lands according to the types of grapes grown. (5) None of these 23. Why is Burgundy referred to as a minefield? (Q. code - 102203023) (1) Because of the potential that remains yet to be explored. (2) Because of the unhealthy effects that a vineyard exercises on the residents. (3) Because of the overabundance of wines. (4) Because of the unexpectedness of discovering a new type of wine. (5) Because of the semantic similarity between vinefield and minefield. 24. Which of the following cannot be classified as "ethereal experience"? (Q. code - 102203024) (1) Imagine ethereal floaty vocals with a cosmic angelic twist to give you an idea of what to expect. (2) A rocky mound by the side of the path beckons me; I sit there awhile taking in the ethereal beauty around me. (3) Suddenly, ghostly, ethereal voices fill the house. (4) Your smartness could do with some ethereal common sense. (5) The effect is more like the raucous exchange of goods in a market, or bazaar, than the ethereal realm of cathedral building.

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25. Which of the following disagrees with the passage? (Q. code - 102203025) (1) The priests in Burgundy were involved in winemaking. (2) In Burgundy, Pinot noir was planted because Gamay grape was considered unfit for humans. (3) Most of the good vineyards in Burgundy are in Côte d'Or. (4) White wines are made from Chardonnay. (5) Both (2) and (4)

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Section II Directions for Q. 26 to Q.30: Read the information given in the paragraph and answer the question that follows.

26. The idea that the Government had in mind with the proposal for a Censor Board was that it was required to tone down the flashing of sex and violence at the viewer through movies. But even sitcoms or Television serials are infamous for the explicit display of adult content draped in the garb of humour; yet everyone agrees that a Censor Board for the sitcoms would be detrimental to creativity. Hence, the idea for Censor Board makes no sense. Which of the following, if true, would provide most support for the argument above? (Q. code - 102203026) (1) The importance of movies is far more than sitcoms. (2) Sitcoms have been dragged to the court before for showing explicit content. (3) A Censor Board would not deter the activities that are detrimental to the society. (4) A Censor Board isn't a practically viable option. (5) According to a study, 90% of the public glued to sitcoms do not watch movies. 27. Detro is a chain of stadiums. Its revenues come only from the sale of tickets. For ten weekends every year, stadiums are used exclusively for IPL softball matches. During all other weekends, the stadiums are used only for Art exhibitions. Earnings from a typical IPL match far exceeds than that from an art exhibition. However, annual revenues from the art exhibitions outmatch annual revenues from IPL matches. Which of the following strategies, if implemented, would likely provide the greatest boost to Detro's revenues? (Q. code - 102203027) (1) Step up the fee for IPL tickets, but leave the fee for Art Exhibition tickets unaltered. (2) Step up the fee for Art Exhibition tickets, but leave the fee for IPL tickets unaltered. (3) Discontinue the IPL, and organise the Art Exhibition each and every weekend of the year. (4) Organize some IPL matches for weekdays instead of weekends; and during those weekends, use the stadiums for Art Exhibitions. (5) Organize some Art Exhibitions for weekdays instead of weekends; and during those weekends, use the stadiums for IPL matches.

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28. During the past week, 63 students of Erudite School have reported symptoms of a strain of skin disease known as Psoriasis, but only one student till now has tested positive for the strain. A teacher claims that the apparent outbreak of Psoriasis can be attributed to a swim in the contaminated waters two weeks ago at the school trip. (Q. code - 102203028) Which of the following, if true, would most support the claim made by the teacher above? (1) Patients with Psoriasis often do not exhibit Psoriasis symptoms until more than a week after contracting it. (2) Erudite's swimming pool is open to students during every weekday. (3) Patients with Psoriasis do not generally test positive until at least one week after Psoriasis symptoms begin to occur. (4) Psoriasis symptoms generally last only a few days. (5) A person can test positive for Psoriasis without exhibiting its symptoms. 29. 2007 saw a migration of more citizens from the state of Tamil Nadu to Karnataka than during any prior year. In the same year, Karnataka experienced a dramatic increase in the number of reported violent crimes over 2006. The unavoidable conclusion is that people who migrated from Tamil Nadu to Karnataka were responsible for this increase. Which of the following statements, if true, would most seriously weaken the claim that citizens from Tamil Nadu were responsible for the increase in violent crime in Karanataka during 2007? (Q. code - 102203029) (1) Each year more violent criminals are apprehended in Tamil Nadu than in Karnataka. (2) During 2007 more violent crimes were reported in Tamil Nadu than in Karantaka. (3) In 2007 no Karanataka citizen migrated from either Karanataka or Tamil Nadu to any state other than Karanataka or Tamil Nadu. (4) In 2007, number of unreported violent crimes in Tamil Nadu increased as well. (5) In 2007, fewer Karanataka citizens migrated from Karanataka to Tamil Nadu than from Tamil Nadu to Karanataka. 30. The total demand for aluminium foil on the part of manufacturers who produce aluminium foils for packaging consumer products has declined in the past three years. During the same time period, the cubic volume of freshly excavated aluminium that is used to produce aluminium packaging foils has also declined. However, reports from recycling facilities across the country indicate that the amount of aluminium-based packaging material that they provide to aluminium-packaging companies for reuse has been increasing steadily. Considering the last three years, the information provided best supports which of the following conclusions? (Q. code - 102203030) (1) The amount of packaging using freshly excavated aluminum from mines has decreased. (2) The amount of aluminum-based packaging that has been recycled for the same uses has exceeded the amount that has not. (3) Recycled aluminium-based packaging has been used only for new packaging. (4) The total amount of packaging material made of non-aluminium materials has increased. (5) Consumers have increased the portion of aluminium products that they recycle after using.
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Directions for Questions 31 to 35: In the following paragraph, there are blanks that have to be filled in by the given options. Choose the most appropriate word as the answer. Hard economic times are correlated with protectionism, as each country blames others and protects its [31] jobs. In the 1930's, such "beggar-thy-neighbor" policies worsened the situation. Unless political leaders resist such responses, the past could become the future. Ironically, however, such a [32] prospect would not mean the end of globalization, defined as the increase in worldwide networks of interdependence. The threat today is that [33] protectionist reactions to the economic crisis could help to [34] the economic globalization that has spread growth and raised hundreds of millions of people out of poverty over the past halfcentury. Unless governments [35] to stimulate their economies and resist protectionism, the world may find that the current economic crisis does not mean the end of globalization, but only the end of the good kind, leaving us with the worst of all worlds. 31. (1) global (3) high-earning (5) menial (Q. code - 102203031) 32. (1) grim (3) skeptical (5) ponderous (Q. code - 102203032) 33. (1) tender (3) mediocre (5) selfish (Q. code - 102203033) 34. (1) hinder (3) choke-off (5) curb (Q. code - 102203034) 35. (1) compete (3) decide (5) refuse (Q. code - 102203035) (2) domestic (4) blue-collar

(2) great (4) new

(2) fearsome (4) short-sighted

(2) stimulate (4) spread

(2) co-operate (4) hasten

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Directions for Questions 36 to 38: Each question is a logical sequence of statements with a missing link, the location of which is shown parenthetically [(....)]. From the five options available, choose the one that best fits into the sequence. 36. Donkeys are very special animals. Most people have enjoyed a donkey ride at the seaside, zoo or farm at one time or another as a child, a tradition started during the Victorian times. How could anyone resist those cute sad faces, and those extraordinary long eyelashes? [..........] Its their special mark. If you are familiar with the story of the nativity you will know that Mary and Joseph had to travel from Nazareth to Bethlehem to be counted, a journey of around 95 kilometres. This was no small distance back in those days when there weren't any motorized vehicles. Additionally the journey was over a hilly terrain, which made the long journey even harder. (Q. code - 102203036) (1) Maybe this is why donkeys look so sad, because their special mark is hidden. (2) Which is exactly why they are good for long and arduous journeys. (3) But donkeys are special for another reason. (4) But what is so special about their mark? (5) Its not just this attitude that is mysterious. 37. We've all got the same problems, so solutions must be shared. If the government has any clever ideas to solve its cybersecurity problems, certainly a lot of us could benefit from those solutions. If it has an idea for improving network security, it should tell everyone. The best thing the government can do for cybersecurity world-wide is to use its buying power to improve the security of the IT products everyone uses. [….......] And those same products, now with improved security, will become available to all of us as the new standard. (Q. code - 102203037) (1) That should hit the selling capacity of the vendors who focus on fake products. (2) If it imposes significant security requirements on its IT vendors, those vendors will modify their products to meet those requirements. (3) What that will achieve is a matter of debate but given the audacity of the market, better products will surely surface. (4) It will help create improved products that address the cybersecurity issue to the fullest. (5) Not only this, but also it can provide the customers with the knowhow of how crackers can deal their security a blow.

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38. Americans have been wondering why the world has not rallied to our side in the last two years, and our leaders have provided convenient answers. "They hate our freedom" or "they envy our success" or "criticism just goes with the territory of being the top dog," we are told. [….......] Take first the very notion of America battling alone in the face of envy and hatred. The outpouring of sympathy and support that occurred around the world on Sept. 12, when even the French newspaper Le Monde proclaimed "We Are All Americans" should have put that notion to rest. If it didn't, certainly the number of world leaders, from India to Canada, backing UN Secretary General Kofi Annan in his offer of help in Iraq showed a worldwide willingness to help with reconstruction even though most nations had opposed the war. (Q. code - 102203038) (1) The countries of the world have found an ally in their own jealousy. (2) What is not told is this. (3) Glibness, however, requires gullibility. (4) Our success has never been meted out with proper acknowledgement on the part of the world. (5) This just goes to show that if you are at the top you will catch a lot of heat. Directions for Questions 39 and 40: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the five. Check grammar, usage, semantics, mechanics, redundancy, punctuation, spelling and style elements. 39. A major study has revealed that the information provided in the recent studies indicate that greener pastures lie ahead for the Government once the recession is over. (Q. code - 102203039) (1) indicate that greener pastures lie ahead for the Government once the recession is over . (2) indicate that greener pastures should lie ahead for the Government once the recession is over. (3) indicate that greener pastures are laying ahead for the Government once the recession is over . (4) indicates that greener pastures lie ahead for the Government once the recession is over . (5) indicates that greener pastures are laying ahead for the Government once the recession is over . 40. Mr. Jadeja alleged that the Art Council buttonholed for auditoriums with less capacity to reduce viewership and hike the tag prices. (Q. code - 102203040) (1) for auditoriums with less capacity to reduce viewership and hike the tag prices. (2) for auditoriums with fewer capacity to reduce viewership and hike the tag prices. (3) for auditoriums that had been built with lesser capacity to reduce viewership and hike the tag prices. (4) for auditoriums that had fewer capacity to reduce viewership and hike the tag prices. (5) for auditoriums that had fewer capacity as a means of reducing viewership so they could hike tag prices.
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Directions for Questions 41 to 45: Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following: Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘F’), Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘I’). Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a ‘J’)

-

Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements. 41. (A) No one can predict the outcome of such a case in advance. (B) But anyone who has read the infamous memos understands that the statute in question defined torture more narrowly than the treaty it purports to implement. (C) Compounding this evidentiary equation is the fact that at the time the memos were written, no one had ever been prosecuted for violating this law. (D) Furthermore, the lawyers were informed that the techniques they were assessing were used for training U.S. military personnel. (Q. code - 102203041) (1) JIIF (2) JIFF (3) IJFF (4) IFFF (5) IJFJ 42. (A) Russia's economy has been among the hardest hit globally, with the unemployment rate reaching the 10 percent threshold in March, its highest rate in the last nine years. (B) Both government officials and critics in Russia and abroad have expressed public doubts about the economy's ability to bounce back in such an adverse economic climate. (C) The International Monetary Fund forecasts a 6 percent contraction in 2009. (D) With the confidence of the oil-boom years a casualty of the country's sharply deteriorating financial outlook, Russians have shed their traditional reluctance to participate in the political process. (Q. code - 102203042) (1) FJFI (2) FJFJ (3) IJFJ (4) FFJI (5) FFFI

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43. (A) Thus, the water expert David Mosse has rightly observed that a striking aspect of India's Participatory Irrigation Management (PIM) programme is the little attention that is given to water rights. (B) It has meant that while the government's rights to water are unchallenged, its obligation to deliver water to WUAs (in canal systems) is rarely legally binding! (C) In this backdrop Briscoe's audacious claim that new legislation like the Maharashtra Water Resources Regulatory Authority Act, 2005 is creating a water entitlement merits closer scrutiny. (D) The Act creates a high powered State Water Resource Regulatory Authority which is to fix the criteria for trading of water entitlements or quotas on the annual or seasonal basis by a water entitlement holder. (Q. code - 102203043) (1) FIIF (2) IIIF (3) JIFF (4) JFFF (5) IFJF 44. (A) The Mira Road expose of a father's sexual abuse of his daughter for nine years has opened a Pandora's box of similar cases of incest across the country. (B) Increasingly, this is also shedding light on the legal system's shortcomings in dealing with incest, as well as on social attitudes that hinder effective solutions. (C) The Indian legal statutes do not contain any specific provisions against incest. (D) Incest involving minors is uniformly frowned upon in the developed world. (Q. code - 102203044) (1) FIFJ (2) FFFF (3) JIJF (4) JFIJ (5) IIFJ 45. (A) The Ritalin King did his level best to ensure the Irish will vote again on Lisbon. (B) How that will pan out remains uncertain, given the dizzying political and economic permutations made possible by the global downturn. (C) But as the day of the Ritalin King fades into night, the "No Means Yes" brigade may have to find a better sales pitch to make sure that they get their way. (D) Perhaps an undiscovered Rohypnol King awaits crowning, one who will administer a dose of economic scare tactics to ensure eventual submission. (Q. code - 102203045) (1) IIII (2) FIJI (3) JIJI (4) JIIJ (5) IIJJ

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Directions for questions 46 to 50: In each of the following questions, a quotation has been provided. Choose the option that provides the most appropriate phrasing of the meaning of the quotation. 46. The quality of mercy is not strained, it blesses him that gives and him that takes. (Q. code - 102203046) (1) The best way to live is to show mercy to everyone. (2) Both the receiver and the giver of mercy are detached from the quality of it. (3) Everyone should show mercy as the giver and the receiver both benefit. (4) Mercy is for people who deserve it, its use should not be abused. (5) Being merciful allows everyone to be blessed. 47. A pessimist is one who has been intimately acquainted with an optimist. (Q. code - 102203047) (1) To become a pessimist one must spend time with an optiomist. (2) Intimate acquaintance with an optimist is required to become a pessimist. (3) Optimism breeds pessimism. (4) Overarching behaviour of an optimist can change anyone into a cynic. (5) A pessimist is one who undertands and sympathises with an optimist. 48. To know that we know what we know, and that we do not know what we do not know, that is true knowledge. (Q. code - 102203048) (1) Knowledge is knowing oneself. (2) Knowledge is knowing the true self (3) Knowledge is knowing intelligence can be limited only by one's own timidity. (4) Knowledge is knowing the expanse of one's understanding. (5) Knowledge is understanding that one's intelligence has limits. 49. It is a custom more honored in the breach than the observance. (Q. code - 102203049) (1) It is a custom that is performed by the conspirators. (2) It is a ritual for rogues and reprobates. (3) It is an abandoned duty that is not observed any more. (4) It is a custom which is usually ignored. (5) It is a ritual that is practiced but people have lost their interest in it. 50. The opposite of a profound truth may well be another profound truth. (Q. code - 102203050) (1) Nature is unknowable. The deeper you go, the harder it gets to understand. (2) To fathom truth one must be prepared for dichotomies. (3) Nature doesn't distinguish between right and wrong; both are equally knowable in her eyes. (4) The profundity of truth has its roots in the belying of it. (5) One truth may take another one to create a composite understanding.
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Section III

Directions for Q. 51 to 54: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. A village consists of people belonging to various categories. The categories are Lords, Vyaparies, Brahmans, Kshatriyas, Vaishya, Shudra and Bhikshuk. These people are discriminated upon the basis of their caste, color, creed and sex. The graph below gives the sum of number of people in these categories. The percentages of people in these categories who are unhappy with the caste system are: 20%, 30%, 24%, 33%, 55%, 65%, 70%. (Not necessarily in this order)

Number of villagers 700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0 550 425 325 450 600 500

525

Lords+Vyaparies+ Brahmans

Vyaparies+Brahma ns+Kshatriyas

Kshatriyas+Vaishy a+Shudra

51. At least how many categories have more than 50 people unhappy with the system? (Q. code - 102203051) (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these 52. How many categories have more than 200 people in them? (Q. code - 102203052) (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) None of these

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Vaishya+Shudra+B hikshuk

Shudra+Bhikshuk+ Lords

Brahmans+Kshatri yas+Vaishya

53. At most how many categories have more than 40 unsatisfied people with the caste system? (Q. code - 102203053) (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) None of these 54. If the number of people in the Shudra category is reduced by 25%, what would be the maximum number of people in this category who are unhappy with the system? (Q. code - 102203054) (1) 105 (2) 98 (3) 140 (4) 120 (5) None of these Directions for Q. 55: Answer the following question based on the information given below. 55. Maithli and Gautam play a game of Cross-Zero. In this game, a player always tries to win. To win the players try to get three zeroes or three crosses in a row (horizontal, vertical, or diagonal).
o o x o x x

In the game shown on the right, 6 moves have been made. Maithli is playing with crosses (X) and Gautam with zeroes (0). However, we do not know who started the game. Who will win this game? (Q. code - 102203055) (1) Maithli (2) Gautam (3) Cannot Be Determined (4) Maithli starts the game, and Gautam wins (5) Gautam starts the game and Gauttam win

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Directions for Q. 56 and Q.57: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. In the following long division method, every '_' blank space represents a number . ___)____ __ __(__8__ ___ ------__ __ _ __ --------__ __ __ __ ---------0 56. How many different solutions are possible? (Q. code - 102203056) (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3 (5) Cannot be Determined 57. How many different digits are utilized in solving this problem? (Q. code -102203057) (1) 8 or 10 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 9 or 10 (5) Cannot be determined

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Directions for Q. 58 and Q.61: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. Excel mobile phones conduct campus recruitment sessions in various prestigious institutes of India. The final selected candidates are called for training process, which would continue for six months. But due to the quality demand by the clients, the company decided to cut short the under performing employees after each month of the training period and recruit new candidates in various months (not necessarily the same number) so as to compensate for the fired employees. The company shows the track record for the new recruitments in the corresponding months and the fired employees in the same period:
New recruitments(at the beginning of the corresponding month) 80 70 45 56 80 62 56 20 Fired Emoloyees(after the corresponding month) 55 74 48 66 70 73 50 6

Month January February March April May June July August

58. What would be the maximum number of employees who were recruited in January and were not fired till the end of August? (Q. code - 102203058) (1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 6 (5) None of these 59. What would be the maximum number of employees who were recruited in March and were not fired till the end of June? (Q. code - 102203059) (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) None of these. 60. If each new employee is paid 15000 per month, then what would be the maximum total amount the company would pay to the new employees who were recruited in a month and were fired exactly after three months? (Q. code - 102203060) (1) 270000 (2) 105000 (3) 540000 (4) 500000 (5) None of these

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61. At most how many employees were recruited at the beginning of a month and fired at the end of the same month? (Q. code - 102203061) (1) 412 (2) 408 (3) 414 (4) 420 (5) None of these Directions for Q. 62 and Q.64: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. In a company (AMA) a promotion test was organised for all the employees to be promoted as HR executive, Finance executive and Marketing executive. Only 70% of the total employees passed the exam and got promoted. 25% of the employees who passed the exam were promoted as the HR executive. 30% of the employees who passed the exam were promoted as the Finance executive and the rest were promoted as the Marketing executive. Also this year, AMA merged its operations with another company and 80% of the total employee base of the other company joined AMA. 16% of the total new employees (which are equal to 20% of the employees who failed the test) joined as HR executives, 44% of the new employees joined as the Finance executives and the rest joined as the Marketing executives. The total number of employees who joined as Marketing executives from the other company is 21720. 62. What is the total number of employees in AMA after the merger? (Q. code - 102203062) (1) 199100 (2) 212675 (3) 167875 (4) 144800 (5) 89725 63. If 45% of the employees who passed the test are female, then what is the total number of male employees in AMA? (Q. code - 102203063) (1) 117971 (2) 55748 (3) 79640 (4) 116971 (5) Cannot determined 64. If after one year, 25% of the previous (before merger) Finance executives got pink slips (were fired) and 15% of present HR executives changed their department and joined as Finance executives, then what would be the number of total employees working as Finance executives? (Assume that no recruitment for any job was held this year in AMA) (Q. code - 102203064) (1) 41261 (2) 55062 (3) 51261 (4) 45062 (5) 55162

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Directions for Question 65 to 68: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. Mrs. Aadhunikwala from India wants to purchase some dresses. She went to 5 different Fashion Weeks organised in 5 different nations. She returned home and prepared a table of the prices of 8 different dresses which were displayed in each fashion week:
Cost of dress (in their respective currency) San francisco Singapore Milan (Italy) London (UK) (USA) (Singapore) 1000 1800 1200 2000 1400 780 1680 1650 900 1130 1300 1870 1590 920 1450 2100 1200 1670 1760 1800 1360 1540 1430 1180 1190 950 860 1750 2300 2630 2290 3380

Dress Ladies Evening Dress Knit Cover up Voile Cover up Cotton Ladies Tunic Embroidered Tunic Stylish Ladies Tunic Party Wear Saree Wedding Wear

Rosemount (Australia) 1300 1950 1650 1950 1450 1860 1260 2780

The payment can be made only in the currency of that country. The custom duty incurred on the import of goods from all other countries to India are 1%, 2%, 0%, 20% and 5% on the goods imported from Italy, UK, USA, Singapore and Australia respectively. The total cost paid for a dress is the sum of its basic cost and the custom duty. The conversion rate for different currencies with respect to Indian rupees (INR) is as follows: 1 U.S. dollar (USD) = 50 INR 1 Australian dollar (AUD) = 35 INR 1 Euro = 65 INR 1 Singapore dollar (SGD) = 30 INR 1British pound (GBP) = 75 INR (Note: Italy uses the currency Euro) 65. What is the minimum amount (in INR) Mrs. Aadhunikwala must carry with her so that she can buy atleast 2 pieces of Cotton Ladies Tunic in her tour? (Q. code - 102203065) (1) 154100 (2) 137180 (3) 144300 (4) 151200 (5) 140760 66. What is the maximum possible difference (in INR) in the cost of Ladies Evening Dress when bought from two different Fashion Weeks? (Q. code - 102203066) (1) 70000 (2) 89925 (3) 89500 (4) 137700 (5) 75000
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67. Mrs. Aadhunikwala advises her friend that on a bulk purchase of any dress she will get a discount of 5% on every single piece. Which product is the cheapest for her and from which Fashion Week she must buy it? (Q. code - 102203067) (1) Party Wear Saree, Rosemount Fashion Week (2) Voile Cover Up, Milan Fashion Week (3) Ladies Evening Dress, Rosemount Fashion Week (4) Party Wear Saree, San Francisco Fashion Week (5) Stylish Ladies Tunic, Singapore Fashion Week 68. What is the maximum number of different dresses she can buy with INR 180000? (Q. code - 102203068) (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 Directions for Question 69 to 71: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. The bar graphs depict the number of new programs offered by five different Indian universities over a period of 2001 - 2008:

25 2001 Number of Programmes Offered 20
17 18 17 17 16 17

2002

2003

2004
20 18

15
12 12

13 11 11 10 9 8 7 6 6 9

10

5

0 Nanda University Taxla University Appa University Name of University Sherpa University Rana University

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20 18

2005
19 18

2006

2007

2008
18 19

19

Number of Programmes offered

16

16 14 12 10 8
6 13 13

15 14 13 11 9 7 6 5 11 10 12

6 4 2 0 Nanda University Taxla University Appa University

Sherpa University

Rana University

Name of University

69. How many universities offer on an average 12 or more programs? (Q. code - 102203069) (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5 70. P1 = The total number of programs offered by those universities of which each university offered more than 100 programs in the given period. P2 = The total number of programs offered by all universities in the given period. Express P1 as a percentage of P2. (Q. code - 102203070) (1) 62.5 (2) 62.2 (3) 61.7 (4) 63 (5) 61 71. Which university shows the maximum percentage drop in the new programs offered in any year as compared to the previous year for the given period? (Q. code - 102203071) (1) Nanda University (2) Taxla University (3) Appa University (4) Sherpa University (5) Rana University

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Directions for Question 72 to 75: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. The table below provides information about various hospitals in the country. The hospitals are evaluated on four parameters: Medicinal reserve, Doctors, Infrastructure & equipment, Feedback.
Rating Hospital name WHA / WOHA WHA WOHA WOHA WHA WHA WOHA WOHA WOHA WHA WOHA WHA WHA WHA WOHA WHA WOHA WOHA WHA TREATMENT Medicinal USED reserve HT, ART, RT ART, AT UT, AT MT, ART, UT HT, UT HT, MT MT, AT UT, AT RT, UT MT,RT UT, RT, HT AT, UT RT, MT, ART ART, AT AT, ART, UT AT, HT HT, MT, UT RT, ART, UT 10.5 7.5 9 7.5 7.5 9 9 13.5 13.5 10.5 10.5 10.5 10.5 10.5 10.5 9 7.5 9 Doctors 9 10.5 9 7.5 7.5 7.5 9 10.5 9 10.5 10.5 10.5 13.5 9 9 9 7.5 9 Infrastructure & equipment 9 7.5 6 7.5 6 9 10.5 10.5 9 12 12 15 10.5 10.5 10.5 6 4.5 7.5 Feedback 10.5 13.5 7.5 10.5 7.5 4.5 6 9 10.5 7.5 4.5 6 12 7.5 10.5 9 7.5 12

BOOTH MEMORIAL HOSPITAL CHILDREN'S HOSPITAL CIVIC CENTER HOSPITAL FOUNDATION SAN LEANDRO HOSPITAL EDEN MEDICAL CENTER ESKATON DOCTORS HOSPITAL FAIRMONT HOSPITAL HAYWARD HOSPITAL HERRICK MEMORIAL HOSPITAL ACMC-HIGHLAND CAMPUS KAISER HOSPITAL APOLLO HOSPITAL SUMMIT MEDICAL CENTER NAVAL HOSPITAL OAKLAND HOSPITAL CORPORATION OGORMAN INFANT PERALTA HOSPITAL SUMMIT MEDICAL FOUNDATION

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The given abbreviations hold for all hospitals. WHA WOHA AT HT UT ART MT RT

: With In House Ambulance : Without House Ambulance : Allopathic Treatment : Homeopathic Treatment : Unani Treatment : Ayurvedic Treatment : Mexican Treatment : Russian Treatment

72. Mr. Chopar gets ill and he wants to get admited in a hospital without House Ambulance. He also wants either Allopathic or Mexican Treatment. His family is interested only in those hospitals which have the rating of Medicinal reserve at least equal to the rating of Infrastructure & equipments. In how many hospitals can he be admited to get cured of his illness? (Q. code - 102203072) (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) 9 73. For how many hospitals the ratio of the rating of Feedback to the sum of ratings of Doctors and Medicinal reserve is greater than that of HERRICK MEMORIAL HOSPITAL? (Q. code - 102203073) (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 7 (5) 9 74. What is the ratio of the number of hospitals which are WOHA having ART or HT and the rating of Doctors more than 7.5 to the hospitals which are WHA having RT or UT and the rating of Infrastructure & equipments equal to or greater than 7.5? (Q. code - 102203074) (1) 3/8 (2) 5/4 (3) 1/2 (4) 5/8 (5) 2/1 75. Among the hospitals that have both RT and ART. Which one has the best overall rating? (Overall rating = {(Rating of feedback) × 5 + 3 × (Rating of medicinal reserve)} (Q. code - 102203075) (1) SUMMIT MEDICAL FOUNDATION (2) SUMMIT MEDICAL CENTER (3) OAKLAND HOSPITAL CORPORATION (4) BOOTH MEMORIAL HOSPITAL (5) HERRICK MEMORIAL HOSPITAL

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Section IV

76. There are three natural numbers A, B and C such that the LCM of (A,120) is 1320, LCM of (B,120) is 1680 and LCM of (C,120) is 1800.Which of the following statements is true ? (Q. code - 102203076) (1) A, B and C all three can be perfect squares. (2) Only B and C can be perfect squares. (3) Only C can be both a perfect square and a perfect cube. (4) C is definitely a perfect square. (5) C can be a perfect square. 77. In a certain number system the following decimal numbers are represented as shown: 5=$ 20 = +% 95 = µ%# (Note: Each sign represents a distinct digit in that number system) How can 778 be expressed in this system? (Q. code - 102203077) (1) +%µµ (2) +%%$ (3) +$#µ (4) +µ%µ (5) None of these 78. Find the value of y in the given equations, where product of x, y and z is an integer (Q. code - 102203078) (x + 1)yz = 12 (y + 1)zx = 4 (z + 1)xy = 4 (1) 3 (2) –2 (3) 1 (4) –1 (5) More than one of the above values are possible 79. Given that A, B, C and D are 4 positive integers such that A5 = B4, C6 = D2 and (C – A) = 3, then find the value of (D – B)? (Q. code - 102203079) (1) 31 (2) 1025 (3) 1023 (4) 63 (5) 15 80. A bus moving from Pune towards Mumbai overtakes a scooter also moving towards Mumbai exactly at 2:00pm at point A. The bus reaches Mumbai at 4:00pm and puts a stop for 1 hour. When the bus starts its return journey it meets the scooter again at 5:30pm at point B. When will the scooter reach Mumbai? (Q. code - 102203080) (1) 5:30 (2) 6:40 (3) 6:00 (4) 6:30 (5) 6:20
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81. In an elocution competetion, there were 12 participants of which 7 were Indian and 5 were Chinese. Each participant was allowed to speak one at a time only in English and no participant was given a second chance to speak. What is the probability that the seventh parcipant to speak is the last Chinese participant? (Q. code - 102203081) (1) 7/264 (2) 1/24 (3) 5/264 (4) 9/264 (5) 11/264 82. If f(x) = 2x2 – 2abcx + ab2x + ac2x + abc, and the minimum value of f(x) is at x = –128, then what is the minimum value of (a + 3b – 3c)? (Given that a>b>c) (Q. code - 102203082) (1) 36 (2) 24 (3) 32 (4) 21 (5) 27 Direction for Question 83: Answer the following questions on the basis of the information given below. Consider 2 different cloth cutting processes. In the first one, 4 circular cloth pieces are cut from a square cloth piece of side A in the following steps - the original square of side 'A' is divided into 4 smaller squares of the same size; then a circle of maximum possible area is cut from each of the smaller squares. In the 2nd process, only one circle of maximum possible area is cut from the square of side 'A' and the process ends there. The cloth pieces remaining after cutting the circles are scrapped in both the processes. 83. The ratio of total area of scrap generated in the former to that in the latter is? (Q. code - 102203083) (1) √3 : √ 2 (2) √ 2 : √ 3 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (5) None of these Directions: For the following questions, four options are given choose the correction option. 84. Billu is fond of cubes so his Uncle gave him a set of 729 small cubes of 1cm3 each on his birthday 7th birthday. He wants to arrange all of them in a cuboidal shape such that the surface area will be minimum. What is length of the diagonal of this larger cuboid? (Q. code - 102203084) (1) √1458 (2) 7 √ 3 (3) √ 2058 (4) 9 √ 3 (5) √1000

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85. A natural number n has four factors. The sum of its proper factors is 72. Find the sum of all values that n can assume. (Q. code - 102203085) (1) 5255 (2) 6250 (3) 6350 (4) 5810 (5) 5250 86. In the given figure PQR is an equilateral triangle with a side equal to 1 unit and with PS as the median. A circle with diameter PS is drawn such that it touches QR at point S. Find the area of the part of the triangle that lies outside the circle? (Q. code - 102203086)

P

A Q
(1) (5√3-2π)/16 (3) (5√3-2π)/32 (5) None

B S R
(2) (5√2-2π)/32 (4) (5√2-2π)/16

87. Find the number of pairs of integers (a, b) such that 2a + 22a+1 + 1 = b2. (Q. code - 102203087) (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 0 (5) more than five. 88. If both the roots of the equation x2 - 6ax + (9a2 - 2a + 2) = 0 are greater than 3, then which of the following is true for 'a'? (Q. code - 102203088) (1) a > 9/11 (3) a >11/9 (5) a < 11/9 (2) a ≥1 (4) a < 2

x 43 89. x and y are positive integers such that 197 ≤ y < of y. (Q. code - 102203089) (1) 1 (2) (3) 5 (4) (5) Cannot be determined

17 77 . Find the minimum possible value

2 4

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90. There are four numbers (A) log23

(B) log35

3 3 (C) √2 (D) Which of the following is correct regarding these four numbers? (Q. code - 102203090) 3 (1) log23 is larger than 3 (3) log23 is larger than √2 (5) None of these

(2) log23 is larger than log35 (4) All of (1), (2) and (3)

91. A playground is in the shape of a regular hexagon of side 90 cm. A creative cyclist cycles on the perimeter of the ground and then from the midpoint of the all the sides of the hexagon he cycles in such a way that another Hexagon is formed and continues the process infinite times. What would be the total perimeter the cyclist would have traveled (Assume that infinite traveling is possible.) (Q. code - 102203091) (1) 540 / (2 – √3) (2) 1080 / (2 + √ 3) (3) 270 / (2 + √ 3) (4) 1080 / (2 – √ 3) (5) 270 / (2 – √ 3) 92. PQRS is a rectangle. It is also given that SE:ER=5:4 and RF:FS =8:1, the area of the quadrilateral PQFS = 49 units. What is the area of Quadrilateral QPER? (Q. code - 102203092) P Q

S

F

E

R

(1) 69.2 units (3) 63.7 units (5) 59.5 units

(2) 73.4 units (4) 70.2 units

93. Henry forgot a telephone number which he wanted to dial. However, he remembered the following details about it (I) The number was a seven-digit number. (II) The digit 1 appeared exactly once in the number. (III) The other six digits were three non-zero digits, each appearing exactly twice. What is the minimum number of different numbers that Henry would have to dial, to be certain of dialing the right number? (Q. code - 102203093) (1) 35280 (2) 36460 (3) 34320 (4) 30520 (5) 33370

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94. If log10567 = x and log101029 = y, find the value of log1021 in terms of x and y. (Q. code - 102203094) (1) (3y+2x)/11 (2) (5y–2x)/11 (3) (8y+3x)/11 (4) (7y+4x)/11 (5) (5y+2x)11 95. Anshuman has a pack of 52 cards. He assigns the digits 1, 2, 3, …, 13 to the cards in such a way that ace is numbered 1, king 13, queen 12, jack 11 and so on for each suit. He wants to form 3 groups of cards wherein the numerical sum of the cards equals 109, 70 and 64. Find out the minimum number of cards required? (Q. code - 102203095) (1) 23 (2) 24 (3) 22 (4) 25 (5) 20 96. Let X = 20!(1/20! + 1/19! + 1/18!2! + 1/17!3! + … + 1/2!18! + 1/19! + 1/20!) Find the quotient when X – 1 is divided by 1023? (Q. code - 102203096) (1) 210 – 1 (2) 210 (3) 211 – 1 (4) 210 + 1 (5) 29 + 1 97. The top face of a cube is a square ABCD. Take the diagonal AC and BD and pass a knife along the diagonals so that the cube is cut into four prisms of equal size. Find the ratio of the slant surface area of all the four prisms to the total surface area of the cube? (Q. code - 102203097) (1) 5(√3+1) : 4 (2) 3(√3-1) : 7 (3) 4(√2+1) : 5 (4) 4(√2+1) : 7 (5) 2(√2+1) : 3

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98. If 1!×2!×3!.............×49! = (180)a × b, where a and b are natural numbers and b is not a multiple of 5, find the value of a. (Q. code - 102203098) (1) 279 (2) 260 (3) 238 (4) 250 (5) None of these 99. For any two positive real numbers a and b, we define a*b = a + b - ab. Suppose both a and b are larger than 0.5 but smaller then 1. Then (a*a)< (b*b) if (Q. code - 102203099) (1) a < b < 1 (2) a > b > 1 (3) a < 1 < b (4) a < b > 1 (5) None of these 100.There are a certain number of positive integers which are multiples of 15 and lie between 100 and 100,000. Of these, how many are multiples of 35? (Q. code - 102203100) (1) 1000 (2) 960 (3) 952 (4) 1122 (5) 985

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